[2025] CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam Dumps, Test Engine Practice Test Questions [Q17-Q40]

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[2025] CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam Dumps, Test Engine Practice Test Questions

Pass CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence exam [Nov 11, 2025] Updated 254 Questions


To be eligible for the CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence certification exam, candidates must meet specific educational and professional requirements. Applicants must have a minimum of a bachelor's degree from an accredited institution and two years of relevant professional experience in fraud examination, auditing, or investigations. Alternatively, applicants can have a master's degree or higher in business, accounting, or finance and one year of professional experience.


Achieving the CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence certification demonstrates a high level of expertise in fraud prevention and deterrence. It is highly valued by employers, as it helps them identify professionals who have the skills and knowledge to prevent fraud in their organizations. Additionally, the certification provides professionals with a competitive advantage in the job market, as it demonstrates their commitment to their profession and their willingness to invest in their career development.

 

NEW QUESTION # 17
Benjamin, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE). was contacted regarding an engagement to investigate a complex money laundering case spanning numerous international jurisdictions and involving multiple cutting- edge technologies. Benjamin had previously attended a seminar on investigating money laundering schemes, but he had no other training or experience in such cases. However, he accepted the engagement and chose to conduct the work himself. Benjamin's conduct would likely be a violation of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B

Explanation:
Understanding the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics:The ACFE Code of Professional Ethics requires Certified Fraud Examiners to demonstrate competence and due care in their professional services. Specifically:
Rule 2 states that CFEs must "perform all professional engagements with due diligence." Rule 4 emphasizes that CFEs must "avoid conduct that discredits the profession or the Association." Competence and Due Care:
Benjamin, despite his attendance at a seminar on money laundering, lacks the requisite expertise or experience in investigating complex money laundering cases. Accepting an engagement of this nature without possessing adequate training, knowledge, or resources indicates a failure to exercise due care.
The Code emphasizes the importance of competence, meaning professionals must decline engagements that exceed their expertise unless they involve qualified individuals or teams.
Violation Assessment:
By choosing to conduct the investigation alone, Benjamin disregards the ethical requirement to ensure competence and quality in professional work. This likely jeopardizes the investigation's integrity and results.
This conduct could lead to suboptimal outcomes, legal liabilities, and reputational harm, which discredit the profession, violating the ACFE ethical framework.
Conclusion:Benjamin's decision is a breach of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics because he failed to ensure adequate preparation, skills, and resources for the engagement.
References:
ACFE Code of Professional Ethics: Sections on Competence and Due Care.
Relevant standards and case studies from "Auditor Essentials" and "Excel for Auditors," emphasizing ethical adherence in engagements.


NEW QUESTION # 18
Which of the following is NOT included in G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance (the Principles)?

  • A. Guidance regarding appropriate board structures, responsibilities, and procedures
  • B. Support for establishing stronger protection for foreign shareholders than for domestic shareholders
  • C. Recognition of the importance of the role of stakeholders in corporate governance
  • D. A request that governments have in place an appropriate framework to support good corporate governance practices

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Understanding G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance:These principles provide a framework to improve corporate governance worldwide. Key elements include board responsibilities, shareholder rights, equitable treatment, and stakeholder roles.
* Analysis of Options:
* A. Guidance on board structures: This is included in the principles to ensure effective governance and oversight.
* C. Framework for corporate governance: Governments are encouraged to create legal and regulatory frameworks supporting corporate governance.
* D. Stakeholder importance: Stakeholders' roles in governance are recognized, acknowledging their contribution to sustainable business practices.
* B. Stronger protection for foreign shareholders: The principles advocate for equitable treatment of all shareholders, not preferential treatment for any group.
* Conclusion:Option B contradicts the principle of equitable treatment, making it the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 19
Formally documenting and communicating organizational hierarchies, including the proper flow of information, can hinder an organization's fraud prevention initiatives.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Effect of Documenting Organizational Hierarchies:
* Properly documenting hierarchies improves fraud prevention by clarifying responsibilities, ensuring accountability, and establishing clear information flow.
* This reduces ambiguity and limits opportunities for fraud.
* Why the Statement is False:
* Documenting and communicating hierarchies strengthens fraud prevention, rather than hindering it.
* Conclusion:The statement is false because clear hierarchies enhance fraud prevention initiatives.


NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following is FALSE regarding corporate governance'

  • A. Effective corporate governance practices are considered to be the foundation of fraud risk management.
  • B. Corporate governances primary purpose is to ensure the accuracy of the organizations financial reports
  • C. An entity's corporate governance structure specifies the distribution of rights and responsibilities among the different participants in the organization
  • D. Effective corporate governance practices are most necessary in an organization in which the owners are not also the individuals responsible for setting and executing the business strategy

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following Is TRUE regarding an organization's ethics program?

  • A. In designing the ethics program, management should consider whether the organization currently has any ethical leadership Issues
  • B. All of the above
  • C. An effective written ethics policy alone is sufficient to communicate management's ethical philosophy and serve as a comprehensive ethics program
  • D. To be most effective, access to the organization's ethics policy should be restricted to employees and other Internal parties only

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 22
According to the 2020 Report to the Nations.___________schemes ate the MOST COMMON form of occupational fraud, while_________schemes are the MOST COSTLY form of occupational fraud.

  • A. Financial statement fraud: corruption
  • B. Corruption, asset misappropriation
  • C. Asset misappropriation: financial statement fraud
  • D. Asset misappropriation; corruption

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Findings from the 2020 Report to the Nations:
* Asset misappropriation: Most common form of occupational fraud (e.g., theft of cash or inventory). It is frequent but less costly.
* Financial statement fraud: Most costly, involving significant manipulation of financial data.
* Analysis of Options:
* A. Asset misappropriation; corruption: Corruption is less costly than financial statement fraud.
* B. Corruption, asset misappropriation: Incorrect order and does not match the costliest scheme.
* C. Financial statement fraud; corruption: Incorrect pairing.
* Conclusion:Asset misappropriation is most common, and financial statement fraud is most costly.
References:2020 ACFE Report to the Nations on Occupational Fraud and Abuse.


NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following is NOT a purpose served by a professional organization's code of conduct?

  • A. It provides more direct solutions to professional ethical dilemmas than might exist under general ethical principles
  • B. It replaces the need for individuals to consult their own conscience.
  • C. It facilitates practical enforcement and profession-wide Internal discipline.
  • D. It serves as a reference and benchmark for ethical guidance

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Purpose of a Code of Conduct:
* A professional code of conduct serves as a guideline for ethical behavior, provides benchmarks for decision-making, and facilitates enforcement within the profession.
* It does not replace the personal responsibility to exercise individual judgment and consult one's conscience.
* Analysis of Other Options:
* B, C, and D: These accurately describe the purposes of a professional code of conduct.
* Conclusion:The code of conduct does not eliminate the need for personal ethical reflection, making Option A incorrect.


NEW QUESTION # 24
Jane, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE). was hired to conduct a fraud examination at XYZ Company. Her examination did not reveal any conclusive evidence that fraud had occurred or was occurring. Consequently.
XYZ's management asked Jane to state in her official examination report that the company is free of fraud as a means of assuring the board of directors that the company's anti-fraud controls were effective. The ACFE Code of Professional Ethics prohibits Jane from complying with management's request

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 25
The theory of differential association is used frequently to explain white-collar criminality Which of the following is NOT one of the assertions or principles of differential association?

  • A. Criminal behavior is learned using the same mechanisms as other learning
  • B. The process of learning criminal behavior Is the same as pure imitation
  • C. Criminal behavior is acquired through participation with intimate personal groups
  • D. Criminal behavior is learned from other people in a process of communication

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 26
Management at Alpha Company is developing a corporate compliance program. To ensure that the program will be effective, management should both incentivize employees for their compliance and discipline them for any violations.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 27
As part of its anti-fraud program, Elm Company is outlining the responsibilities of different stakeholders.
Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring the effectiveness of the organization's anti-fraud program?

  • A. Internal auditors
  • B. Management
  • C. Forensic accountants
  • D. The compliance function

Answer: B

Explanation:
Management is ultimately responsible for ensuring the effectiveness of the organization's anti-fraudprogram.
They set the tone at the top, establish internal controls, and ensure that the necessary resources and oversight mechanisms are in place to prevent and detect fraud. Other stakeholders, such as auditors and compliance officers, provide support but do not bear ultimate responsibility.


NEW QUESTION # 28
According to The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing, which of the following should the internal audit team evaluate in its assessment of the risk management process?

  • A. The materiality of the organization s financial statements
  • B. The organization s fraud risk management initiatives
  • C. The management team's assessment of the internal controls over financial reporting
  • D. The organization s risk exposures relating to the sale of assets

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 29
According to Silk and Vogel's research, business leaders rationalize legal violations by asserting that compliance with government regulations is too costly and cuts too heavily into company profits.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 30
The existence of many specialized departments within a company generally decreases the overall risk of fraud within the organization.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 31
Daniela, an independent Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), was hired by Charles, executive director of a nonprofit organization, to investigate a straightforward embezzlement case. During the investigation, Daniela learns that Charles is involved in an unrelated fraud. Under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics. Daniela should:

  • A. Report Charles to law enforcement
  • B. Resign from the engagement.
  • C. Tell the nonprofit's board of trustees about Charles
  • D. Not disclose the information about Charles.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following is NOT explicitly prohibited by the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?

  • A. Drawing conclusions based upon evidence
  • B. Engaging in behavior that is against the law
  • C. Participating in an activity where there is an undisclosed conflict of interest
  • D. Acting in a way that could be deemed unethical by the industry

Answer: A

Explanation:
ACFE Code of Professional Ethics Overview:
The Code explicitly prohibits unethical behavior, undisclosed conflicts of interest, and illegal activities.
However, drawing evidence-based conclusions is encouraged as part of professional practice.
Why B is Correct:
Drawing conclusions based on evidence is central to the fraud examination process and is explicitly supported by ACFE standards.
Why Other Options are Prohibited:
A, C, and D:Engaging in unethical, conflicting, or illegal activities violates ACFE ethical guidelines.
References for All Questions:
ACFE Fraud Examination Guide and Code of Professional Ethics.
Best practices for fraud risk assessment and reporting.
Reporting standards and ethics in fraud examination.


NEW QUESTION # 33
In identifying the inherent fraud risks that could apply to the organization, the fraud risk assessment team should discuss:

  • A. Risks to the organization's reputation
  • B. The organization's incentive programs
  • C. The possibility of management's override of controls
  • D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Scope of Fraud Risk Assessment:
* The fraud risk assessment team must consider various factors, including:
* A. Incentive programs: Can create pressures that lead to fraud.
* B. Management override of controls: A key risk for fraud occurring despite existing safeguards.
* C. Risks to reputation: Fraud incidents can harm the organization's public image.
* Comprehensive Discussion:
* Considering all these factors ensures a thorough identification of inherent fraud risks.
* Conclusion:The fraud risk assessment team should discuss all listed items.


NEW QUESTION # 34
During the course of a fraud examination. While, an employee of the ABC Corp.. approaches Blue, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), and tells Blue that she wishes to furnish information in confidence. Blue also is employed by the ABC Corp. Blue should:

  • A. Tell White that she will try to keep the information as confidential as possible
  • B. Not agree to the request for confidentiality
  • C. Take White's request straight to ABC Corp.'s management
  • D. Agree that the information will be held in confidence, even though Blue knows it will not be

Answer: B

Explanation:
CFE Ethical Responsibilities:
* As per the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics, fraud examiners must ensure transparency in their professional conduct. They cannot promise confidentiality if the information must be disclosed to management or other authorities as part of the investigation.
Why D is Correct:
* Agreeing to confidentiality in this situation would breach ethical and legal obligations, especially if the information pertains to fraud or misconduct that the organization needs to address.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
* A and B: Attempting to maintain confidentiality is misleading and unprofessional.
* C: Taking the request directly to management without clarification could breach trust prematurely.


NEW QUESTION # 35
Effectively documenting and communicating organizational hierarchies, including the proper flow of information, can be a helpful tool in preventing fraud

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 36
Risk management is focused on balancing the organization's___________with Its____________.

  • A. Internal controls; financial reporting model
  • B. Regulatory requirements, risk appetite
  • C. Risk appetite, ability to meet its objectives
  • D. Objectives; resources

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Focus of Risk Management:
* Risk management seeks to balance the organization's risk appetite (the level of risk it is willing to accept) with its ability to achieve objectives.
* Why D is Correct:
* Effective risk management aligns the organization's risk tolerance with its strategic and operational goals to ensure sustainability and success.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect:
* A, B, and C: While internal controls, regulatory requirements, and resources are critical, the primary balance is between risk appetite and objectives.
References for All Questions:
* ACFE Fraud Examination Guide and Risk Management Best Practices.
* COSO frameworks for internal controls and fraud risk management.
* Industry guidance on effective deterrence and governance practices.


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is TRUE regarding proactive fraud auditing procedures?

  • A. Fraud assessment Questioning techniques are most appropriately used when attempting to determine who might be responsible for a particular fraud scheme.
  • B. Analytical review of the financial statements is best used to uncover small frauds that might be missed by other detection methods.
  • C. Surprise audit procedures are an effective fraud detection mechanism, but they do not help prevent fraud
  • D. Implementing proactive fraud audit procedures demonstrates the organization's intention to aggressively look for possible fraudulent conduct.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Step by Step Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with All References:
Proactive Fraud Auditing:
Proactive fraud audit procedures aim to prevent and detect fraud before it escalates. Implementing these procedures signals to employees and stakeholders that fraud will not be tolerated.
Such actions align with creating a strong anti-fraud culture within the organization.
Examples of Proactive Fraud Audits:
Surprise audits, continuous monitoring, and analytical procedures identify discrepancies and potential fraud risks.
Fraud prevention and deterrence are enhanced through consistent implementation.
Effectiveness and Prevention:
Unlike reactive measures, proactive approaches demonstrate an organization's commitment to maintaining integrity and ethical standards.


NEW QUESTION # 38
According to modern criminological studies, which of the following is the determinant aspect of white-collar crime?

  • A. Criminal history
  • B. Social class
  • C. Cultural ties
  • D. Organizational opportunity

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 39
Who is ultimately responsible for responding appropriately to instances of fraud within an organization?

  • A. Internal auditors
  • B. Management
  • C. General counsel
  • D. The audit committee

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 40
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