Updated Jun-2026 N10-009 Exam Practice Test Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?
- A. LC
- B. MPO
- C. SC
- D. ST
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Definition of Fiber Connector Types:
* LC (Lucent Connector): A small form-factor fiber optic connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, commonly used for high-density applications.
* SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector): A larger form-factor connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, often used in datacom and telecom applications.
* ST (Straight Tip): A bayonet-style connector, typically used in multimode fiber optic networks.
* MPO (Multi-fiber Push On): A connector designed to support multiple fibers (typically 12 or 24 fibers), used in high-density cabling environments.
* Common Usage:
* LC Connectors: Due to their small size, LC connectors are widely used in network interface cards (NICs) and high-density environments such as data centers. They allow for more connections in a smaller space compared to SC and ST connectors.
* SC and ST Connectors: These are larger and more commonly used in patch panels and older
* fiber installations but are less suitable for high-density applications.
* MPO Connectors: Primarily used for trunk cables in data centers and high-density applications but not typically on individual network interface cards.
* Selection Criteria:
* The small form-factor and high-density capabilities of LC connectors make them the preferred choice for network interface cards, where space and connection density are critical considerations.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on fiber optics and connector types.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data?
- A. AH
- B. TC
- C. GRE
- D. ESP
- E. UDP
Answer: D
Explanation:
P
Explanation:
Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data. ESP encrypts the payload and optional ESP trailer, providing data confidentiality.
ESP Functionality:
ESP can encrypt the entire IP packet, ensuring that the data within the packet is secure from interception or eavesdropping. It also provides options for data integrity and authentication.
ESP operates in two modes: transport mode (encrypts only the payload of the IP packet) and tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet).
Comparison with Other Protocols:
AH (Authentication Header): Provides data integrity and authentication but does not encrypt the payload.
GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): These are transport layer protocols that do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption must be provided by additional protocols like TLS/SSL.
Use Cases:
ESP is widely used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure secure communication over untrusted networks like the internet.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two devices on two different subnets.
The administrator verifies that both devices can successfully ping other devices on the same subnet. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the connectivity issue?
- A. VLAN mismatch
- B. Incorrect default gateway
- C. Faulty Ethernet cable
- D. Wrong duplex settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
When two devices on different subnets are unable to communicate, but can communicate with other devices on their own subnet, the issue is most often related torouting. Devices on different subnets require adefault gatewayto route traffic between networks.
* If thedefault gateway is incorrectly configured, the device won't know how to reach other subnets.
* Faulty cables (Option B) or duplex mismatches (Option C) would likely cause connectivity issues even within the local subnet, which is not the case here.
* VLAN mismatches (Option D) are typically issues with switch port configurations and would likely cause total loss of connectivity, including within the same subnet.
#So, the most probable andlogical causeis anincorrect default gateway.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is used to redistribute traffic between one source and multiple servers that run the same service?
- A. Load balancer
- B. Router
- C. Switch
- D. Firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is Load balancer because it is specifically designed to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple backend servers that provide the same application or service. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under network infrastructure, load balancing improves performance, scalability, and high availability by preventing any single server from becoming overwhelmed.
A load balancer can operate at Layer 4 (transport layer, based on IP address and port) or Layer 7 (application layer, based on content such as HTTP headers or URLs). It uses various algorithms such as round-robin, least connections, or weighted distribution to efficiently allocate client requests among servers. If one server fails, the load balancer can redirect traffic to healthy servers, ensuring service continuity.
A router (Option A) forwards packets between different networks but does not distribute traffic among servers running the same application. A switch (Option B) forwards frames within a local network based on MAC addresses. A firewall (Option C) filters traffic based on security rules but does not perform traffic distribution for load-sharing purposes.
Therefore, a load balancer is the correct solution for redistributing traffic among multiple servers.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Before using a guest network, an administrator requires users to accept the terms of use Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this goal?
- A. Captive portal
- B. Pre-shared key
- C. Autonomous access point
- D. WPA2 encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that users must view and interact with before being granted access to a network. It is commonly used in guest networks to enforce terms of use agreements. When a user connects to the network, they are redirected to this portal where they must accept the terms of use before proceeding. This method ensures that users are aware of and agree to the network's policies, making it the best choice for this scenario. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A newly opened retail shop uses a combination of new tablets, PCs, printers, and legacy card readers. Which of the following wireless encryption types is the most secure and compatible?
- A. WPA2
- B. WPA3
- C. WPA/WPA2 mixed mode
- D. WPA2/WPA3 mixed mode
Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA2/WPA3 mixed mode provides compatibility for older devices (that only support WPA2) while allowing newer devices to take advantage of stronger WPA3 encryption. This ensures maximum compatibility and security in a mixed-device environment.
A . WPA3 only is most secure but not compatible with legacy devices.
B . WPA2 only is secure but does not future-proof against WPA3-capable devices.
D . WPA/WPA2 mixed mode is weaker due to WPA (deprecated, insecure).
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Security - Wi-Fi encryption standards, WPA2 vs WPA3, mixed-mode compatibility.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following allows a remote user to connect to the network?
- A. Command-line interface
- B. Jump box
- C. API gateway
- D. Client-to-site VPN
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: A Client-to-Site VPN allows a remote user to securely connect to a company's internal network, providing access as if they were physically on-site.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A network technician needs to configure IP addressing in a Class C network with eight subnets total:
Three subnets for 60 hosts
Three subnets for 15 hosts
Two subnets for seven hosts
Which of the following solutions should the technician use to accomplish this task?
- A. RFC 1918
- B. APIPA
- C. VLSM
- D. CIDR
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-
009 objectives, VLSM allows a network administrator to create subnets of different sizes within the same network, making it ideal for environments where subnet host requirements vary.
In this scenario, the technician must support multiple subnet sizes-60 hosts, 15 hosts, and seven hosts- within a single Class C network. Using a single subnet mask for all eight subnets would either waste a large number of IP addresses or fail to meet host requirements. VLSM solves this problem by allowing each subnet to be assigned a custom subnet mask that closely matches its host needs, maximizing address efficiency.
CIDR enables classless addressing and route aggregation but does not, by itself, describe creating multiple subnet sizes within a single address block. APIPA is a self-assigned addressing mechanism used when DHCP fails and has no relevance to subnet design. RFC 1918 defines private IP address ranges but does not address subnetting strategies.
The Network+ objectives emphasize VLSM as a best practice for efficient IP address management, especially in enterprise environments where conserving address space and meeting diverse departmental requirements are critical. In this case, VLSM is the only solution capable of meeting all stated constraints.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following are environmental factors that should be considered when installing equipment in a building? (Select two).
- A. UPS location
- B. Floor construction type
- C. Power load
- D. Fire suppression system
- E. Humidity control
- F. Proximity to nearest MDF
Answer: D
Explanation:
When installing equipment in a building, environmental factors are critical to ensure the safety and longevity of the equipment. A fire suppression system is essential to protect the equipment from fire hazards. Humidity control is crucial to prevent moisture-related damage, such ascorrosion and short circuits, which can adversely affect electronic components. Both factors are vital for maintaining an optimal environment for networking equipment.Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is used to estimate the average life span of a device?
- A. MTTR
- B. MTBF
- C. RPO
- D. RTO
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding MTBF:
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF): A reliability metric that estimates the average time between successive failures of a device or system.
Calculation and Importance:
Calculation: MTBF is calculated as the total operational time divided by the number of failures during that period.
Usage: Used by manufacturers and engineers to predict the lifespan and reliability of a device, helping in maintenance planning and lifecycle management.
Comparison with Other Metrics:
RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable time to restore a system after a failure.
RPO (Recovery Point Objective): The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time.
MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): The average time required to repair a device or system and return it to operational status.
Application:
MTBF is crucial for planning maintenance schedules, spare parts inventory, and improving the overall reliability of systems.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on reliability and maintenance metrics.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following is a type of NAC that uses a set of policies to allow or deny access to the network based on the user's identity?
- A. MAC filtering
- B. Standard ACL
- C. 802.1X
- D. SSO
Answer: C
Explanation:
802.1X is a port-based Network Access Control (NAC) method that enforces authentication before allowing access to the network. It uses a RADIUS server for identity verification and policy enforcement, ensuring only authorized users/devices gain access.
A). Standard ACL filters traffic by IP, not identity.
B). MAC filtering controls devices by hardware address but can be spoofed.
D). SSO (Single Sign-On) provides user convenience across services, not network-level access control.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Security - NAC, 802.1X authentication, identity-based access.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A Chief Information Officer wants a DR solution that runs only after a failure of the primary site and can be brought online quickly once recent backups are imported. Which of the following DR site solutions meets these requirements?
- A. Hot
- B. Cold
- C. Warm
- D. Active
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):
A warm site is partially configured with necessary infrastructure and systems, but it requires recent backups to be restored before becoming fully operational. This provides a balance between cost and recovery time.
A . Cold site has only power and space, requiring full setup, which takes too long.
C . Active (active-active) runs simultaneously with the primary site, not only during failure.
D . Hot site is fully operational at all times and can take over immediately, but it's more expensive.
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
NEW QUESTION # 45
A network administrator needs to implement a solution to filter access to the internet. Which of the following should the administrator most likely implement?
- A. Proxy
- B. Intrusion detection system
- C. Cloud gateway
- D. Router
Answer: A
Explanation:
A proxy server can filter internet access by controlling which websites or services users can reach. It enforces content policies and can provide caching and monitoring.
A . A router directs traffic but doesn't filter internet sites by itself.
B . A cloud gateway could also filter, but the most direct answer is proxy.
D . An IDS detects suspicious activity but doesn't filter browsing access.
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an organization's architecture?
- A. Data-at-rest encryption
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Honeynet
- D. Time-based authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A network administrator needs to connect a department to a new network segment. They need to use a DHCP server located on another network. Which of the following can the administrator use to complete this task?
- A. IP Helper
- B. Scope
- C. Reservation
- D. Exclusion
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
An IP Helper (IP Helper Address) allows DHCP requests to pass through routers and reach a DHCP server on another network.
* DHCP broadcasts are not forwarded across routers by default, so an IP Helper Address is needed to relay the request.
* This is crucial for large networks where a single DHCP server serves multiple subnets.
* Option B (Reservation): Ensures a specific IP address is assigned to a MAC address but does not relay DHCP across networks.
* Option C (Exclusion): Prevents specific IP addresses from being assigned, but does not help with DHCP relay.
* Option D (Scope): Defines the range of IP addresses available for DHCP clients but does not assist in cross-network communication.
? Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide - Section: DHCP and IP Addressing
NEW QUESTION # 48
A network administrator needs to divide 192.168.1.0/24 into two equal halves. Which of the following subnet masks should the administrator use?
- A. 255.255.0.0
- B. 255.255.255.128
- C. 255.255.254.0
- D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding Subnetting:
Original Network: 192.168.1.0/24 has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for 256 IP addresses (including network and broadcast addresses).
Objective: Divide this network into two equal subnets.
Calculating Subnet Mask:
New Subnet Mask: To divide 192.168.1.0/24 into two equal halves, we need to borrow one bit from the host portion of the address, changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.128 (/25).
Subnet Breakdown:
First Subnet: 192.168.1.0/25 (192.168.1.0 - 192.168.1.127)
Second Subnet: 192.168.1.128/25 (192.168.1.128 - 192.168.1.255)
Verification:
Each subnet now has 128 IP addresses (126 usable IP addresses, excluding the network and broadcast addresses).
Comparison with Other Options:
255.255.0.0 (/16): Provides a much larger network, not dividing the original /24 network.
255.255.254.0 (/23): Also creates a larger subnet, encompassing more than the original /24 network.
255.255.255.0 (/24): Maintains the original subnet size, not dividing it.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP addressing.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting. Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?
- A. 224.0.0.0/24
- B. 172.16.0.0/24
- C. 192.168.0.0/24
- D. 240.0.0.0/24
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Understanding Multicast:
* Multicast IP Address Range: The multicast address range is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, designated for multicast traffic.
* Multicast Applications:
* Use Case: Multicast is used for one-to-many or many-to-many communication, suitable for applications like audio and video broadcasting where the same data is sent to multiple recipients simultaneously.
* Appropriate Network Selection:
* 224.0.0.0/24 Network: This range is reserved for multicast addresses, making it the appropriate choice for setting up a multicast network.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* 172.16.0.0/24: Part of the private IP address space, used for private networks, not designated for multicast.
* 192.168.0.0/24: Another private IP address range, also not for multicast.
* 240.0.0.0/24: Reserved for future use, not suitable for multicast.
NEW QUESTION # 50
You are troubleshooting a network issue involving multiple devices.
In order to ensure that all devices have synchronized timestamps in their logs for better event correlation, which of the following protocols would be the most appropriate to use?
- A. SMTP
- B. Syslog server
- C. SNMP
- D. NTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
NTP (Network Time Protocol) synchronizes clocks across network devices, ensuring accurate timestamps in logs. This is critical for correlating events across different systems during investigations.
* A. Syslog collects logs but relies on accurate timestamps already present.
* B. SMTP is an email protocol, unrelated to time synchronization.
* C. SNMP is for monitoring and management, not time.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
* Domain: Network Operations - Time synchronization (NTP), log correlation, security operations.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A network architect of a stock exchange broker is implementing a disaster recovery (DR), high-availability plan. Which of the following approaches would be the best fit?
- A. Warm site
- B. Active-active
- C. In-band
- D. Full mesh
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is Active-active because a stock exchange broker requires extremely high availability, minimal downtime, and near-zero data loss. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under high availability and disaster recovery concepts, an active-active configuration involves multiple systems or sites operating simultaneously and sharing the workload. If one system fails, the other continues processing traffic without service interruption.
This model provides the lowest Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and Recovery Point Objective (RPO), which is critical in financial trading environments where even seconds of downtime can result in major financial loss. Active-active architectures also support load balancing, redundancy, and continuous synchronization between systems.
A warm site (Option A) contains preconfigured hardware but may require data restoration and configuration before becoming fully operational, resulting in some downtime. A full mesh (Option C) is a network topology design and does not specifically address disaster recovery at the service level. In-band (Option D) refers to management traffic sharing the production network and is unrelated to DR strategy.
Therefore, an active-active approach is the most suitable solution for mission-critical financial operations.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two devices on two different subnets. The administrator verifies that both devices can successfully ping other devices on the same subnet. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the connectivity issue?
- A. VLAN mismatch
- B. Incorrect default gateway
- C. Faulty Ethernet cable
- D. Wrong duplex settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
When two devices on different subnets are unable to communicate, but can communicate with other devices on their own subnet, the issue is most often related to routing. Devices on different subnets require a default gateway to route traffic between networks.
If the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the device won't know how to reach other subnets.
Faulty cables (Option B) or duplex mismatches (Option C) would likely cause connectivity issues even within the local subnet, which is not the case here.
VLAN mismatches (Option D) are typically issues with switch port configurations and would likely cause total loss of connectivity, including within the same subnet.
✅ So, the most probable and logical cause is an incorrect default gateway.
Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 53
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CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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